Đề luyện tập môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Đề số 51

Đề luyện tập môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Đề số 51

SECTION A – PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1. A. goal B. August C. language D. dog

2. A. laugh B. plough C. cough D. rough

3. A. most B. post C. over D. promise

4. A. want B. what C. warn D. watch

5. A. asked B. studied C. designed D. moved

II. Find the word whose syllable is stresses differently from that of the others.

6. A. national B. tropical C. tradition D. cinema

7. A. repair B. teacher C. happen D. husband

8. A. ocean B. champion C. animal D. destroy

9. A. forest B. because C. effort D. colorful

10. A. comfortable B. difficult C. history D. computer

 

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ENGLISH PRACTICE 51
SECTION A – PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. 	 A. goal	B. August 	C. language 	D. dog
2. 	 A. laugh	B. plough	C. cough	D. rough
3. 	 A. most	B. post	C. over	D. promise
4.	 A. want	B. what	C. warn	D. watch
5.	 A. asked	B. studied	C. designed 	D. moved
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
II. Find the word whose syllable is stresses differently from that of the others.
6. 	A. national	B. tropical 	C. tradition 	D. cinema
7. 	A. repair	B. teacher	C. happen	D. husband
8.	A. ocean 	B. champion	C. animal	D. destroy
9. 	A. forest	B. because	C. effort	D. colorful
10. 	A. comfortable	B. difficult	C. history	D. computer
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.
11. When was your school ____________? – 100 years ago.
A. found	B. founded	C. discovered	D. born 
12. When he arrived, everyone ____________.
A. has left	B. left 	C. had left 	D. leave
13. In some vocational schools, the training quality is worse than ___________ used to be.
A. it	B. they	C. them	D. that
14. Hurry up! They’ve only got _______ seats left.
A. a little 	B. plenty of	C. a lot of 	D. a few 
15. 	He likes to take ___________ in sport, not only to watch it.
A. practice 	B. place	C. part	D. exercise
16. 	I'd rather you ___________ anyone what I said.
A. don't tell 	B. won't tell 	C. didn't tell 	D. not to tell
17. 	We were so late that we ______ had time to catch the train.
A. nearly	B. hardly	C. almost 	D. simply
18.	There is always _______ traffic in the city centre at rush hour.
A. heavy 	B. full	C. strong	D. many
19. 	Both she and her husband are _______ work.
A. out of	B. for	C. on 	D. in
20. 	Tom is having someone _______ the newspaper to her.
A. who brings	B. to bring 	C. bringing 	D. bring 
21. 	They were just _______ us about Anna's new friend.
A. talking	B. saying	C. speaking	D. telling
22. 	He was unwilling to explain the reason _______ his absence.
A. for 	B. why	C. of	D. that
23. Never ______ off until tomorrow what you can do today.
A. set	B. put	C. do	D. turn
24. The stolen jewels were ____________ a lot of money.
A. valued	B. cost	C. priced	D. worth
25. By the time you receive this letter, I will have left __________ Japan.
A. to	B. for	C. at 	D. in
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
II. 	There is ONE mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct them.
26. 	The sick needs to be looked after. So money must be spent on hospitals.
27. 	The accident looked seriously at first but nobody was injured.
28. 	All the students are looking forward to spending their free time to enjoy their Tet holiday.
29. 	My family lived in Hue since 1990 to 1996, but we are now living in Sai Gon.
30. 	Her well-known film, that won several awards, was about the life of Lenin. 
Mistake
Correction
Mistake
Correction
26
29
27
30
28
III. Supply the correct forms of the words in brackets.
31. He is engrossed in doing (science) .. research.
32. Oil spills are a great (threaten) to the undersea world.	 
33. He wants (width) his knowledge of the subject.
34. The giant panda is a(n) (danger)) ..species.
35. You may be surprised at the large (varied) ..of animals in national parks.
31. 
34. 
32. 
35. 
33. 
SECTION C – READING
I. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.
POPPY DAY
Poppy Day, 11 November, is the day when people in Britain remember the soldiers that died in the First World War (1914 – 1918), the Second World War (1939 – 1945) and all other wars since. The first Poppy Day was in 1921. The First World War had ended three years earlier, but it was still very difficult, even impossible, for ex-soldiers in Britain to find employment. So some of them started making and selling red paper poppies. They gave the money that they raised to ex-soldiers who were disabled or unemployed, and to the families of soldiers who had died. The choice of flower was significant. During the war, the soldiers had noticed poppies growing every year on the battlefields in Belgium and the north of France. A well – known poem from that time, written by a Canadian soldier, begin with the lines:
	In Flanders* fields the poppies blow
	Between the crosses, row on row,
	That mark our place*; 
In the days leading up to Poppy Day, about 32 million people in Britain buy and wear small poppies. Some people choose to wear white poppies because they think that white symbolizes peace. Then, at 11 a.m. on 11 November (at the moment when the First World War ended) there’s a two – minute silence. Many people stop and think quietly about the soldiers who died. There are ceremonies at war memorials in towns and villages all over the country. The most important ceremony is in London, when the Queen and the Prime Minister lay wreaths of poppies at the Cenotaph, a monument to soldiers who died in battle.
	*(Flanders = the north of Belgium; our place = our graves)
36. On 11 November people remember _________________________________.	
	A. soldiers who have died since 1921	
	B. soldiers who have died 
	C. soldiers who died in the two world wars 	
	D. soldiers who have died in wars since 1914
37. Why did ex – soldiers start making poppies?
	A. Because they couldn’t find a job.	
	B. Because they were disabled.
	C. Because they didn’t have families.	
	D. Because they were employed.
38. They chose to make poppies because ____________________________.
	A. they had seen poppies growing on the battlefields.
	B. a Canadian soldier had written a poem about poppies.
	C. poppies are popular in Belgium and the north of France.
	D. poppies symbolize peace
39. On Poppy Day ___________________________
	A. 32 million people sell poppies.	
	B. people buy or wear 32 million white poppies.
	C. people wear red or white poppies. 	
	D. people choose only white poppies to wear.
40. During the two – minute silence, people _____________________________.
A. walk to a ceremony in their town or village
B. stop and think about soldiers who have died. 
C. think about ceremonies at war memorials all over the country.
D. think about the moment the First World War ended.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.
HOW THE POP SONG OF TOMORROW ARE CHOSEN
Teenagers in America buy millions of records every year so it is (41) _______ surprising that manufacturers find it (42) __________ to try out the recordings they have made in front of live audiences before (43) _________ the records on the market. The (44) _________ way of doing this is the one employed in Hollywood, where hundreds of (45) _________ are invited to listen to test records and given dials that measure their response to them electrically. Everyone who goes to the sessions enjoys them, (46) ________ they are not paid for their help. They think they are being given an opportunity to (47) _________ the manufacturers what they like. They say that there (48) __________ be more sessions like this. It there (49) ________ , the song that are published would be better and they (50) ________ hear so much rubbish on the radio.
41. 	A. almost 	B. hardly	C. even	D. nearly
42. 	A. being useful B. to be useful	C. useful	D. that it is useful
43. 	A. put 	B. they are putting	C. to put	D. putting
44. 	A. most effective B. more effective	C. effectiveness	D. effected
45. 	A. youngs 	B. young people	C. the youth	D. the youths
46. 	A. although 	B. in spite of	C. however	D. nevertheless
47. 	A. explain 	B. inform	C. tell	D. say
48. 	A. would 	B. should	C. shall	D. ought
49. 	A. are 	B. were	C. was	D. had
50. 	A. shouldn’t 	B. mustn’t	C. ought not to	D. wouldn’t have to 
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
III. Fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.
 Today in China (51) . large scale destruction of forests has occurred, the government has required that every citizen (52) .. the age of 11 and 60 plant three to five trees (53) . year or do the equivalent amount of work in other forest services. The government claims that at (54) . 1000 million (55) . have been planted in China every year (56) .. 1982. In Western countries, increasing consumer demand for wood products that have been produced cause forest land-owners and forest industries to become increasingly accountable for their forest management and timber harvesting practices.
 The Arbor Day Foundation’s Rain Forest Rescue programme is a charity that helps to (57) deforestation. The charity uses money to buy up (58) preserve rainforest land before the lumber companies (59) .. buy it. The Arbor Day Foundation then (60) . the land from deforestation
51. 
52. 
53. 
54. 
55. 
56. 
57. 
58. 
59. 
60. 
SECTION D – WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one.
61. Andrew went to the supermarket despite the heavy rain 
→ Although .........................................................................................................................................
62. I love the countryside. That is why I want to go and live there.
→ I love the countryside, ............................................................................................................................ 
63. He was sorry he hadn’t said goodbye to her at the airport. 
→ He regretted................................................................................................................................. 
64. That is the best meal I have ever eaten. 
→ I have never........................................................................................................................................... 
65. If it hadn’t been for this treatment, the patient would have died
→ Without ............................................................................................................................... 
II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of these words.
66. He forgot about the gun until he got home. (did)
→ Not until ................................................................................................................................................
67. Organized activities don’t interest Eva very much. ( interested)
→ Eva ................................................................................................................................................
68. If you run everyday, your breathing improves quickly. (running )
→ Daily ................................................................................................................................................
69. Do you like meat more than fish? (prefer)
→ Do................................................................................................................................................
70. The boy is talking to the girl with long hair. (whom)
→ The ................................................................................................................................................
III. Write a composition about 150 – 200 words on the following topic: 
WHO IS THE MOST IMPORTANT TO YOU? WHY?
 .. 
KEYS – PRACTICE 51
SECTION A – PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. A
II. Find the word with the stress on the second syllable.
5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. D
SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.
15 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 15 pts
11. B
12. C
13. A
14. D
15. C
16. C
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. D
21. D
22. A
23. B
24. D
25. B
II. Read the following passage. There is ONE mistake in each of the numbered lines. Find and correct them.
5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts
Mistake
Correction
Mistake
Correction
26
Needs
need
29
Since
from
27
Seriously
serious
30
That
whom
28
To enjoy
enjoying
III. Supply the correct forms of the words in brackets.
5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts
31. scientific
34. endangered
32. threat
35. variety
33. to widen
SECTION C – READING
I. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.
5 x 2 pts/ correct answer = 10 pts
36. D
37. A
38A
39. C
40. B
II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.
10 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 10 pts
41. B
42. C
43. D
44. A
45. B
46. A
47. C
48. B
49. B
50. D
III. Fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.
10 questions x 1 pt/ question = 10 pts
51. where
52. between
53. per
54. least
55. trees
56. since
57. prevent
58. and
59. can
60. protects
SECTION D – WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one.
5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts
61. Although it rained heavily / the rain was heavy, Andrew went to the supermarket. 
62. I love the countryside, which is why I want to go and live there.
63. He regretted not having said goobbye to her at the airport.
64. I have never eaten such a good meal before/ a better meal than that.
65. Without this treatment, the patient would have died.
II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of these words.
5 x 1 pt/ correct answer = 5 pts
66. Not only he got home did he remember about the gun.
67. Eva is not very interested in organised activities.
68. Daily running improves your breathing quickly.
69. Do you prefer meat to fish?
70. The girl whom the boy is talking to has long hair.
III. Write a composition about 150 – 200 words on the following topic: 	(25 pts) 
“Who is the most important to you? Why?” 
Notes:
The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme: 
1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and as details as appropriate.
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. 
3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
TOTAL: 100 / 5 = 20
Thank you for your cooperation and considerations.

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